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Does Rav really hold that a minor who reaches the age of maturity and does not have intercourse with her husband, is still only married to him on a rabbinical level? It seems from another source that he holds otherwise. But that source is explained as referring also to a case where he had relations with her and on account of that her marriage became a marriage by Torah law. What is the basis for his debate with Shmuel on this topic? Why is there a need to mention their disagreement in two different places. An actual case was brought where it seems that Rav ruled they needed a divorce even thought it seems they hadn’t yet had intercourse. Two explanations are brought. According to Rav Ashi, the rabbis uprooted/annulled the marriage as the husband acted in an inappropriate manner. If one married women of different statures and one is a marriage on a Torah level and one is rabbinic, can yibum with one exempt the other? It seems to be inferred from the Mishna that a deaf woman can do chalitza – but doesn’t it say in a different Mishna that she cannot? One answer is that the Mishna doesn’t allow for chalitza in that case. Raba brings a second answer – it is referring to a woman who was also deaf when she got married and therefore can undo the zika of that marriage (which was only rabbinic) with chalitza. Difficulties are raised against Raba from cases in the Mishna of the next chapter which seem to be referring to a woman deaf from before she was married and is not permitted to do chalitza. IF one is married to a minor and a deaf woman and they fall to yibum to the brother, each one’s yibum or chalitza does not exempt the other – why?
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