Listen to Podcast Episode 104: Ten PANCE, PANRE, and Rotation Review Questions
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Welcome to episode 104 of the Audio PANCE and PANRE Physician Assistant/Associate Board Review Podcast.
Join me today as we cover ten board review questions for your PANCE, PANRE, EOR, and EOC exams.
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Interactive exam to complement today’s podcast
When is screening for gestational diabetes done?
A. 16 weeks
B. 22 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 32 weeks
E. 34 weeks
Answer and topic summary
The answer is C. 24 weeks
Prenatal care is extremely important. Screening for gestational diabetes is routinely done in pregnant patients at 24 weeks of gestation (typically until 28 weeks). Pregnancy is associated with insulin resistance, mostly because of the placenta’s secretion of human placental lactogen. There are bad consequences of gestational diabetes, so it is critical it is diagnosed and treated adequately.
The initial test is a one-hour 50-gram oral glucose tolerance test (GTT). A positive test >135 mg/dL. If a patient tests positive, they need to undergo the second test, which is a three-hour 100 mg oral GTT. The cut-offs are debated, but generally, the following are positive results: fasting > 95 mg/dL, 1 hour>180 mg/dL, 2 hours>155 mg/dL, 3 hours>140 mg/dL.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Reproductive System ⇒ Complicated Pregnancy ⇒ Gestational diabetes
Also covered as part of the Women’s Health EOR topic list
2. A 60-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse and esophageal varices is brought to the ER with lethargy, delirium, weakness, and nausea. He is normotensive and afebrile. On physical exam, he is ill-appearing with jaundice, spider angiomas, a distended abdomen, and 3+ pretibial pitting edema. Based on his history and clinical presentation, which of the following electrolyte abnormalities would you expect to see in this patient?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
E. Hypermagnesemia
Answer and topic summary
The answer is A. Hyponatremia
The patient has hypervolemic hyponatremia secondary to cirrhosis. The causes of hypervolemic hyponatremia are cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, and CHF. Symptoms include nausea, headache, lethargy, and seizures. It’s important to have an approach to hyponatremia since it is the most common electrolyte abnormality in the hospital.
- First, it’s important to rule out pseudohyponatremia due to proteins, glucose, or mannitol. Also, make sure it’s not a diuretic causing hyponatremia.
- Next, consider the volume status – are they hypervolemic, hypovolemic, or euvolemic?
- Hypovolemic causes are more obvious (emesis, hemorrhage, etc.); however, urinary sodium can help differentiate between hypovolemia and euvolemia. If uNA < 20, then this means the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is on and trying to maintain pressure/volume; therefore, it is likely the patient is hypovolemic.
Treatment of hyponatremia depends on the cause. It usually involves fluid restriction and possibly (and carefully) a hypertonic solution. Remember – rapid correction of hyponatremia can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Renal System ⇒ Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders ⇒ Hyponatremia
Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOR topic list
3. A 12-year-old male patient presents with a circular, expanding rash located where a tick had bitten him. He had recently been camping in the upper Midwest. He also complains of a headache and mild fever. Which of the following is a known cardiac complication of the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Atrioventricular block
C. Wandering atrial pacemaker
D. Sinus bradycardia
E. None of the above
Answer and topic summary
The answer is B. Atrioventricular block
The patient most likely has Lyme disease, which is a tick-borne illness usually caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. It is more prevalent in the Northeast and upper Midwest. Erythema migrans, which is a circular, expanding rash that may look like a “bull’s eye” is seen about 20% of the time with Lyme disease. Clinical features in the early localized disease include fever, headaches, malaise, arthralgia, and lymphadenopathy. Treatment is doxycycline for non-pregnant adults and children. Amoxicillin is a second-line treatment. A well-known cardiac complication is an atrioventricular block.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Infectious Disease ⇒ Spirochetal Disease ⇒ Lyme disease
Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOR and Family Medicine EOR topic list
4. Which of the following is not a manifestation of congenital rubella syndrome?
A. Deafness
B. Cataracts
C. Heart defects
D. Microcephaly
E. Fetal growth acceleration
Answer and topic summary
The answer is E. Fetal growth acceleration
Clinical features of a congenital rubella infection (CRI) include deafness, cataracts, and cardiac disease. Patients may also have CNS abnormalities, such as microcephaly. Typically, a congenital rubella infection will lead to fetal growth restriction, not fetal growth acceleration. A classic finding that you may see on exams is petechiae and purpura — some call these “blueberry muffin lesions.” In general, CRI should be considered in patients who have a suspected rubella infection during their pregnancy. Laboratory studies on the child (before the age of one) are done to help confirm the diagnosis. There is no treatment, and supportive care/surveillance is the main way to manage a congenital rubella infection.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Infectious Disease ⇒ Viral Infectious Disease ⇒ Rubella (German Measles)
Also covered as part of the Pediatric EOR topic list
5. Which of the following is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock?
A. Right ventricle failure
B. Tachydysrhythmias
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Coronary vasospasms
E. Papillary muscle rupture
Answer and topic summary
The answer is C. Myocardial Infarction
Cardiogenic shock is a type of shock that occurs due to cardiac pump failure; essentially, it is the most severe expression of heart failure. It is defined by systemic tissue hypoperfusion secondary to poor cardiac output despite adequate intravascular volume. The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is a myocardial infarction. Other causes include atrial/ventricular tachyarrhythmias, aortic or mitral valve insufficiency, septal defects, free wall rupture, etc. Therapy options vary but may include inotropic support (e.g., dobutamine), intra-aortic balloon pump, and percutaneous ventricular assist devices.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Cardiology ⇒ Hypotension ⇒ Cardiogenic shock
Also covered as part of the Emergency Medicine EOR topic list
6. A 20-year-old female with asthma presents to the clinic with “white stuff” in her mouth for the past few days. On physical exam, you notice a few white plaques on the buccal mucosa and tongue. The lesions are easily scraped off with a tongue depressor. Which of the following is the best initial treatment of choice for the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fluconazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. Lidocaine solution
D. Nystatin
E. Bactrim
Answer and topic summary
The answer is D. Nystatin
The patient has oropharyngeal candidiasis, which is a local infection in patients with certain risk factors (e.g., AIDs, dentures, radiation, inhaled glucocorticoids, etc.). This patient has asthma so the likely causative culprit is her inhaled glucocorticoids. The most common cause of oropharyngeal candidiasis is C. albicans. On a physical exam, you will see white plaques in the mouth (which can be scrapped). In smokers, the lesions may look more yellow/brown.
Diagnosis is usually clinical but can be confirmed by scraping the lesion. A KOH test can be performed on the scrapings — budding yeast with pseudohyphae are seen. The treatment of choice is nystatin swish and swallow or topical clotrimazole. If a patient has a severe disease or fails topical therapy, oral fluconazole can be given.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Dermatology ⇒ Fungal Infections ⇒ Candidiasis
Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOR and Pediatric Rotation EOR topic list
7. A 51-year-old male presents to the clinic. His wife explains his symptoms: brief, involuntary movements of his limbs, depression, impaired thinking, and weight loss. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Parkinson disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Alzheimer disease
D. Vascular dementia
E. Huntington’s disease
Answer and topic summary
The answer is E. Huntington’s disease
Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterized by progressive neurodegeneration. It is due to the expansion of the cytosine-adenine-guanine (CAG) trinucleotide in the HTT gene. The main clinical features include choreiform movements, dementia, cognitive impairment, and psychiatric problems. Patients typically present during mid-life. Diagnosis is confirmed by genetic testing. A brain MRI may reveal caudate atrophy. Treatment is generally supportive and symptomatic. There is no cure for Huntington’s disease.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Neurology ⇒ Movement Disorders ⇒ Huntington Disease
Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOR topic list
8. A 42-year-old male with a history of diabetes presents the ER with a “bad rash” on his left thigh. He said he had previously gotten a bug bite there. He is febrile (102.2F), tachycardic (110 bpm), and hypotensive (80/50 mmHg). On physical exam, you notice a 2-inch erythematous circular lesion that is warm to the touch. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Initiate IV antibiotics and fluids
B. Surgical consult for amputation
C. Outpatient dermatology referral
D. Order venous ultrasound of the leg
E. Send home on oral antibiotics
Answer and topic summary
The answer is A. Initiate IV antibiotics and fluids
This patient has a severe case of cellulitis and sepsis. The best next step is to initiate intravenous antibiotics and fluids. A broad-spectrum antibiotic (like cefepime) plus coverage for MRSA (vancomycin) would be appropriate.
The most common cause of cellulitis is Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes. What differentiates cellulitis from erysipelas is that erysipelas is more well-defined. Antibiotic options for more mild cellulitis cases include Bactrim, clindamycin, and Keflex.
It’s important to keep in mind that events don’t happen in a vacuum — the bug bite led to cellulitis, and the patient’s body responded to the cutaneous infection in a complex and dysregulated way (i.e. sepsis), eventually leading to hypotension and instability.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Dermatology ⇒ Dermatologic Infectious diseases ⇒ Bacterial Infections ⇒ Cellulitis
Also covered as part of the Family Medicine EOR, Emergency Medicine EOR, and General Surgery EOR topic list
9. An 8-year-old male is brought into the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about his behavior in school and at home for the past 7 months. In both settings, he lacks the ability to pay attention, does not follow directions or listen, is easily distracted, is reluctant to do tasks, and constantly loses his homework and pencils. Which of the following is a common side effect of the first-line treatment for this condition?
A. Cognitive fog
B. Appetite suppression
C. Constipation
D. Somnolence
E. Xerosis
Answer and topic summary
The answer is B. Appetite suppression
The patient has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). There are two main patterns: inattentive or hyperactive-impulse (some may have a combined presentation). The DSM V has criteria for diagnosing ADHD and the various subtypes, but in general, symptoms should be seen in multiple settings, last for 6 months or more, and negatively impact social/academic activities. The first-line pharmacological treatment for ADHD, in most cases, is a stimulant (e.g., methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, etc.). The most adverse effects of stimulants include moodiness and irritability, and appetite suppression. It’s important to monitor children’s growth and weight when they are taking a stimulant for this very reason.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Psychiatry ⇒ Neurodevelopmental disorders ⇒ Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
Also covered as part of the Pediatric Rotation and Psychiatry EOR topic list
10. Which of the following patients should be screened for lung cancer, according to the USPSTF?
A. 82-year-old with 34 pack-years who quit 2 years ago
B. 51-year-old with 31 pack-years who quit 10 years ago
C. 70-year-old with 14 pack-years who quit 5 years ago
D. 40-year-old with 20 pack-years who quit 2 weeks ago
Answer and topic summary
The answer is B. 51-year-old with 31 pack-years who quit 10 years ago
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recently changed the lung cancer screening guidelines in March 2021.
An annual low-dose chest CT scan (NOT chest x-ray) should be done for those who are 50 to 80 years old with at least a 20-pack-year history and who currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years.
It is also important to note that these guidelines do not apply to those who have another illness that already severely limits their life expectancy.
Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:
Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Pulmonary ⇒ Pulmonary Neoplasms ⇒ Lung cancer
Also covered as part of the Family Medicine EOR and Emergency Medicine EOR topic list
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The post Podcast Episode 104: Ten PANCE, PANRE, and Rotation Review Questions appeared first on The Audio PANCE and PANRE.
2023-03-20
