Why Didn't Voldemort Use Avada Kedavra on Snape? - Harry Potter Theory

Hey everyone, welcome to another installment of Harry Potter Theory. Today we’re going to discuss how Voldemort went about killing Severus Snape. Snape’s death is a BIG topic in the Harry Potter story, and when he died it was a truly tragic moment in the series. That is unless of course you don’t like Snape.

As you progress through the books and films, your perception of Snape is constantly challenged- is he good? Bad? What are his intentions? And in the end, it turned out that Snape was almost more devoted to the cause than anyone. 

Snape later dies in the Deathly Hallows, after Voldemort comes to the conclusion that he will need to kill Snape in order to become the true owner of the elder wand. However, we do also find out later on that Snape died in vain, as he was never the true owner of the elder wand after all - and was simply unnecessarily killed by Voldemort. However, what was always interesting about Voldemort killing Snape was that he didn’t do it himself-he used Nagini.

So we know that Snape ultimately dies at the hands, or mouth (rather) of Nagini on Voldemort’s orders. But what I found unusual about Snape’s death was the very significant ABSENCE of Avada Kedavra AKA the killing curse. Voldemort is a massive proponent of the killing curse, I mean.. he can’t get enough of it, and it’s very purpose is to kill. So, why wouldn’t he use Avada Kedavra on Snape? Instead, he uses Nagini to finish Snape off? Why?

I've got 2 reasons.

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