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Welcome to The Nonlinear Library, where we use Text-to-Speech software to convert the best writing from the Rationalist and EA communities into audio. This is: On coincidences and Bayesian reasoning, as applied to the origins of COVID-19, published by viking math on February 19, 2024 on LessWrong.
(Or: sometimes heuristics are no substitute for a deep dive into all of the available information).
This post is a response to Roko's recent series of posts (Brute Force Manufactured Consensus is Hiding the Crime of the Century, The Math of Suspicious Coincidences, and A Back-Of-The-Envelope Calculation On How Unlikely The Circumstantial Evidence Around Covid-19 Is); however, I made a separate post for a few reasons.
I think it's in-depth enough to warrant its own post, rather than making comments
It contains content that is not just a direct response to these posts
It's important, because those posts seem to have gotten a lot of attention and I think they're very wrong.
Additional note: Much of this information is from the recent Rootclaim debate; if you've already seen that, you may be familiar with some of what I'm saying. If you haven't, I strongly recommend it. Miller's videos have fine-grained topic timestamps, so you can easily jump to sections that you think are most relevant.
The use of coincidences in Bayesian reasoning
A coincidence, in this context, is some occurrence that is not impossible or violates some hypothesis, but is a priori unlikely because it involves 2 otherwise unrelated things actually occurring together or with some relationship. For example, suppose I claimed to shuffle a deck of cards, but when you look at it, it is actually in some highly specific order; it could be 2 through Ace of spades, then clubs, hearts, and diamonds.
The probability of this exact ordering, like any specific ordering, is 1/52! from a truly random shuffle. Of course, by definition, every ordering is equally likely. However, there is a seeming order to this shuffle which should be rare among all orderings.
In order to formalize our intuition, we would probably rely on some measure of "randomness" or some notion related to entropy, and note that most orderings have a much higher value on this metric than ours. Of course, a few other orderings are similarly rare (e.g. permuting the order of suits, or maybe having all 2s, then all 3s, etc. each in suit order) but probably only a few dozen or a few hundred.
So we say that "the probability of a coincidence like this one" is < 1000/52!, which is still fantastically tiny, and thus we have strong evidence that the deck was not shuffled randomly. On the other hand, maybe I am an expert of sleight of hand and could easily sort the deck, say with probability 10%. Mathematically, we could say something like
P(Shuffled deck|Measured randomness)=P(Shuffled deck)(1000/52!)(1000/52!+0.10)
And similarly for the alternative hypothesis, that I manipulated the shuffle.
On the other hand, we might have a much weaker coincidence. For example, we could see a 4 of the same value in a row somewhere in the deck, which has probability about 1/425 (assuming https://www.reddit.com/r/AskStatistics/comments/m1q494/what_are_the_chances_of_finding_4_of_a_kind_in_a/ is correct). This is weird, but if you shuffled decks of cards on a regular basis, you would find such an occurrence fairly often.
If you saw such a pattern on a single draw, you might be suspicious that the dealer were a trickster, but not enough to overcome strong evidence that the deck is indeed random (or even moderate evidence, depending on your prior).
However, if we want to know the probability of some coincidence in general, that's more difficult, since we haven't defined what "some coincidence" is. For example, we could list all easily-describable patterns that we might find, and say that any pattern with a probability of at most 1/100 from a given shuffle is a strange coincidence.
So if we shuffle the deck and find such a coincidence, what's...
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