Alleged seams in John part 2: "Into the Judean land"

Today I'm talking about the alleged "seam" in John 3:22, which says that after these things, Jesus and his disciples came/went "into the Judean land." Does this mean that they weren't in Judea before? Is this an internal contradiction, because Jesus was already in Judea, in Jerusalem, in the preceding events? And does it mean that an editor was trying awkwardly to fit stories together in the Gospel? I answer "no" to all these questions. Here are various translations of the verse: https://biblehub.com/john/3-22.htm Here is the Greek text analysis page: https://biblehub.com/text/john/3-22.htm Here is my video on four ways of narrating time. (But note: In this case I don't even think the narration is achronological.) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n4TzGiFCeLE&t=8s Thumbnail by Foto: Jonn Leffmann, CC BY 3.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=122817403