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Join Ads Marketplace to earn through podcast sponsorships.
Manage your ads with dynamic ad insertion capability.
Monetize with Apple Podcasts Subscriptions via Podbean.
Earn rewards and recurring income from Fan Club membership.
Get the answers and support you need.
Resources and guides to launch, grow, and monetize podcast.
Stay updated with the latest podcasting tips and trends.
Check out our newest and recently released features!
Podcast interviews, best practices, and helpful tips.
The step-by-step guide to start your own podcast.
Create the best live podcast and engage your audience.
Tips on making the decision to monetize your podcast.
The best ways to get more eyes and ears on your podcast.
Everything you need to know about podcast advertising.
The ultimate guide to recording a podcast on your phone.
Steps to set up and use group recording in the Podbean app.
Alleged seams in John part 2: "Into the Judean land"
Today I'm talking about the alleged "seam" in John 3:22, which says that after these things, Jesus and his disciples came/went "into the Judean land." Does this mean that they weren't in Judea before? Is this an internal contradiction, because Jesus was already in Judea, in Jerusalem, in the preceding events? And does it mean that an editor was trying awkwardly to fit stories together in the Gospel? I answer "no" to all these questions. Here are various translations of the verse: https://biblehub.com/john/3-22.htm Here is the Greek text analysis page: https://biblehub.com/text/john/3-22.htm Here is my video on four ways of narrating time. (But note: In this case I don't even think the narration is achronological.) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n4TzGiFCeLE&t=8s Thumbnail by Foto: Jonn Leffmann, CC BY 3.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=122817403
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